Why Christianity Must Change or Die, (Review ch 5)

So it has been a while since I last wrote on this book. Frankly because I lost interest in it, so far all I have read is Spong giving his feelings about why he doesn't like aspects of Christianity (like the word Father referring to God) and him basically just making wild assertions with absolutely nothing to support it (like saying Paul was a self loathing homosexual). Simply put Spong has approached the Bible with outdated atheistic presuppositions which rule out God's ability to work in the universe from the outset. For instance Spong says God isn't in control of things like lightning because science has revealed to us how lightning works...as if the only way to be able to say God controls lightning is for us to not be able to explain it or observe translucent hands in the sky throwing bolts down to the earth.

That is a rough assessment of what we are dealing with when we come to Spong, and many other liberal theologians for that matter, people who simply are operating on non-Christian presuppositions. This sort of line of thinking continues on in chapter 5 of the book entitled: "Discovering Anew the Jesus of the New Testament"

Early on in the chapter Spong begins with this assertion:

"The Bible is not the word of God in any literal or verbal sense. It never has been! The Gospels are not inerrant works, divinely authored. They were written by communities of faith, and they express even the biases of those communities. The Gospels are not without significant internal contradictions or embarrassing intellectual or moral concepts. The Gospels are not static. They reveal changing evolving theological perspectives. They are not even original. They lean far more than has yet been realized on Paul and the Hebrew scriptures. They are not the words of eyewitnesses as so often has been claimed. Most of the eyewitnesses to the life of Jesus were long dead before the Gospels entered history." (p.72)

Well now that is a mouthful. Basically Spong just rejects everything orthodox Christians have believed about the Gospels throughout church history. However, as I said above he has no basis to make any of the claims he does here, nor does he give us any. I will point out a few blatant errors in what was said here.

"The Bible is not the word of God in any literal or verbal sense. It never has been! The Gospels are not inerrant works, divinely authored." (p.72)

Again just a nice dogmatic statement by Spong. All I will say here is that this is NOT what the men who wrote the scriptures thought. They believed strongly in Divine authorship of the scriptures as Paul writes:

"All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be competent, equipped for every good work." (2 Tim 3:16-17)

"The Gospels are not static. They reveal changing evolving theological perspectives." (p.72)

That's interesting because yet again the men who wrote the scriptures seem to disagree, they believed that that had received the consummation of God's revelation to man, Jude writes:

"Beloved, although I was very eager to write to you about our common salvation, I found it necessary to write appealing to you to contend for the faith that was once for all delivered to the saints." (Jude 1:3)

I don't know when something is delivered once and for all it would seem fairly static and unchanging to me, but I am just a crazy superstitious science hating fundy what do I know. So again maybe this "evolving theological perspectives" is Spongs idea of how Christian theology and theology in general developed, but it is just that, Spong's opinion, completely bereft of any factual merit. When we look at the facts (what the NT writers themselves thought) we see them in direct opposition to Spong, in that they believed God's revelation to man through Christ was the capstone of revelation to man.

As for the Gospels having contradictions, Spong needs to show us how and where they are in serious conflict. Again this is just a nice statement, bereft of any real evidence. As for the Gospels relying on Paul Spong will try to make that case as the chapter goes on so I will address the "evidence" for that in just a moment.

The evidence to support such a seemingly unfounded claim that Paul was heavily influential in the forming of the gospels really begins with Spong's anti-supernatural presupposition that prophecy simply does not happen. How does this effect Spong's understanding of the Gospels you may ask. Well in the 3 synoptic gospels near the end of His ministry Christ predicts the destruction of Jerusalem. We know that Jesus was crucified around 33 AD and that Jerusalem was trashed by the Romans in 70 AD.

So If you look at what I just described above and you are working off of presuppositions that rule out the supernatural and view the universe as a closed system in which God if there is a God can not work or operate in (doing things like prophecy) then you will assume that these "prophecies" of the destruction of the temple made by Christ which were seemingly fulfilled years later were really not prophecies at all they were actually written after the fact. Hence liberal scholars late date the Gospels, they all must have been written after 70 AD because the older ones (synoptics) all have this "prophecy" in them.

Well ultimately this line of thinking is committing the logical fallacy of begging the question as to whether prophecy in fact does occur and if God in fact does operate in time and space. That said, Spong writes:

"For example, the capture and destruction of Jerusalem by the Roman army in 70 CE is a powerful reality the the background of each of the Gospel narratives." (p. 72-73)

Note that, it is "background" in the writers mind, it already happened and shapes how they wrote. I think the only way to assume this is to begin by presupposing prophecy can not happen. Another minute note is the fact that Spong uses CE (Common era) in referring to the year 70 rather than the Christian AD ("Anno Domini" year of our Lord). This is minute but it just shows how thoroughly unchristian this mans thinking is.

Next Spong makes some pretty sweeping statements about the "development" of early Christology as he writes:

"They do not learn in church that the virgin birth accounts were not original to Christianity and did not appear in Christian history until the ninth decade. [This is the date Spong attributes to Matthew] The same thing is true of the narratives that speak of the bodily resurrection of Jesus. They, too, were ninth-decade additions to the Christian story." (p. 73)

Well firstly I would say people don't learn this in Church because it simply isn't true. I mean honestly there is not reason to give such late dates to the Gospels except for the fact that these men don't believe in prophecy. So if I just flat out stated "Mark was written in 40 AD" could Spong really give any reason aside from the presupposing the prophecies of the destruction of the temple were written after the fact that would necessitate a later date for Mark? I don't think so at all.

As for the bodily resurrection being a ninth decade addition, Spong needs to go check his own self ascribed dates again. He himself would attribute a 70 AD-ish date to Mark yet it is in this Gospel we see clear descriptions of Christ's bodily resurrection. Spong of course assumes that since Mark's description of the resurrection is the briefest of the gospels and Jesus isn't eating or being touched by anybody that therefore Mark didn't believe in the bodily resurrection. This again is not the case and is yet another unwarranted assumption on Spong's behalf. For example we read:

"And entering the tomb, they saw a young man sitting on the right side, dressed in a white robe, and they were alarmed. And he said to them, "Do not be alarmed. You seek Jesus of Nazareth, who was crucified. He has risen; he is not here. See the place where they laid him." (Mark 16:5-6)

The mere fact that the tomb was empty, and Christ's body was not where they laid it shows His physical body was raised from the dead. No exegetical tricks just straight forward reading. Mark wrote about the physical bodily resurrection of Christ, this is clear because the tomb was empty and the place in the tomb where they laid Him was no longer occupied. The mere fact that Christ's body was not there shows His resurrection was bodily.

Moving on, after talking about all the words Paul ascribes to Christ's work as Paul's ecstasy over "experiencing" Christ, Spong makes this assertion about Paul's theological writing:

"The very moment we move from ecstatic proclamation to explanation, the presuppositions, definitions, and stereotypes of the ages begin to shape our words. That is inescapable. That is why theological explanations can never be literally true or eternally applicable." (p.75)

I just don't know how in the world Spong can say this and not see the irony in that he is guilty of everything he says should be avoided. He is approaching the Bible with his post-modern presuppositions, his anti-supernatural assumptions, and saying his theological explanation of god is true and the Biblical is false.

Now here is the rub folks, Spong in the next sentence just kind of matter of factly states the following:

"In his epistle to the Romans, written about the year 58 CE...Paul began to develop explanations for his Christ experience." (p.75)

This is important for Spong's seemingly ridiculous assertion that really Paul was the shaper of the Gospels. Again if we assume an anti-supernaturalism the gospels are no younger then 70 AD, Romans is written in 58 AD. It would follow that Paul's writings would then be influencing the men who wrote the gospels before they wrote them. Also note how Spong reinterprets Paul's conversion and his explanation of the truths of Christianity...he is now making sense of his "Christ experience". This is a thoroughly new age and mystical reinterpretation of Paul. We are all on our own personal privatized trips with God (or rather the impersonal force of the universe), no one has THE TRUTH rather we all have OUR TRUTH through experience.

This rejection of THE TRUTH leads to Spongs comment on Jude 3 (I have quoted it above)

"[This] is quite misleading. No such faith ever existed, at least not as a body of doctrinal statements. Christianity, rather, evolved from simple ecstatic proclamations of faith into more and more complex theological forms with the passage of time." (p.76-77)

Again, this is Spong's reinterpretation of how Christianity was born, in it's infancy it was purely mystical then it grew into these complex doctrinal statements. Well as for the response to Jude 3, which Spong needed to reply to, I think Spong's rendering makes Jude's exhortation absolutely meaningless. The people had no idea what Jude was referring to if Spong is right when Jude told the to contend for the faith once for all delivered to the saints. That is like saying to a man "Guard the moose shaker with your life!"

No, they knew what Jude meant, just like we know what he meant. While it is true that the letters of Paul are not written in systematic theology format that does not mean that there was not a core understanding of what Christianity was. It was not just mystical trips. But the reality of Jesus Christ crucified for sinners and risen victorious.

Now Spong makes his move as he writes:

"Some ten to fifteen years after Paul had written his epistle the the Romans, the Gospel of Mark came into existence. ..Mark quickly informed his reader of his purpose for composing this book. He was writing, he announced in the first verse, 'The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ-the Son of God' Mark could hardly articulate his conviction in this manner and still accept the Pauline theory that 'God designated Jesus Son of God at the time of the resurrection' So he adapted Paul's words to his purpose in an interesting way." (p.77)

Spong is playing with the word "declared" and making it mean something that it simply was not intended to mean. He is trying to say that Paul viewed Christ as being crowned as divine at his resurrection. According to Spong we will see that Mark wants that pushed back in the life of Jesus, he writes:

"Two parts of Paul's earlier declaration he not only accepted by gave them to narrative form. Mark took Paul's words, that God had designated Jesus to be God's son, and described just how it was that this designation occurred. The voice of God spoke from heaven, Mark declared, and said of Jesus 'This is my beloved Son in whom I am well pleased.' (Mk 1:11). Mark has provided for God the actual dialogue to expand this Pauline affirmation.

Second, Mark has taken Paul's idea that this designation came by way of the 'spirit of holiness' and has given it a specific setting. He wrote that 'the heavens opened' and the spirit, descending 'like a dove' came upon this Jesus in a very physical way (Mark 1:10). Mark, we begin to realize was following the Pauline script closely, and, in the process, he was revealing just how his own definition of Jesus had been dramatically shaped by Paul." (p.77)

Now I wanted to quote these big hunks so it is clear that I am not making this up. The first time I heard that Spong thought that Paul was really the mastermind behind the Gospels I just laughed at how absurd such an idea seemed. However, Spong is not joking. Spong really does think that Mark was basically regurgitating Pauline theology in his Gospel. So because Paul refers to Jesus as the Son of God then anybody who wrote after him (graciously granting Spong the unsupported dates he gives us) was therefore getting this notion of Jesus as the Son of God from Paul? Spong's conclusion simply does not follow logically even if we grant him the late date for Mark.

Also I think anybody who is not operating on a fragmented privatized subjective view of truth and knowledge about God like Spong is, would just assume that these men write similar things about Jesus because they are talking about the same person. It doesn't logically follow that one is necessarily borrowing from the other. A more believing approach is that these men were both moved by the same Spirit and thus wrote similarly.

What Spong is engaged in here is an attempt to explain the Gospels origins in a rather subjective post-modern sense. Mark wasn't reporting any facts about the life of this person Jesus, he was just trying to give a picture of the Jesus he believed in which he got from Paul...the "Son of God." So Mark knows that there was no voice from heaven and no Holy Spirit descending on Jesus he just made these up to give his "experience" as Spong would say meaning. I am sorry but that is just a bunch of unsupported rubbish.

There is a name for this sort of thinking, unbelief.

Spong goes on to say that Matthew wanted to push back Jesus as the Son of God even further he writes:

"By the time Matthew wrote, some ten to twenty years after Mark [so that gives us between 80-95 AD I mean CE for a possible date of Matthew according to Spong] and perhaps 50 to 55 years after the time of Jesus, the story of the proclamation of Jesus' divine origins had moved once again. Matthew began his story of Jesus' life with the narrative of his birth. It was for Matthew an intolerable idea that Jesus became something either at his baptism or at his resurrection that he was not already." (p.78)

Well there are a number of things that are just plain erroneous here:

1) Spong presumptuously describes Matthew's thinking and attitudes towards Mark's presentation of the life of Jesus. It was "intolerable" for Matthew? Where did he get that from? Yet again we find that it isn't the right wing fundy nutcases who are fond of believing in or rather creating myth. To be blunt Spong just made up this attitude in Matthew to make his system of understanding the Gospels look sensible. Matthew didn't like the idea that Jesus became the Son of God at His baptism, so he creates a story of Jesus birth. Spong in saying this is playing a time traveling Freud.

2) I also don't think that it was Paul's or Mark's point that at specific times in Christ's life, which they describe, that Jesus became the Son of God. Just because Mark doesn't describe the virgin birth does not mean that he thought Jesus became the Son of God at His baptism. It was simply that at His baptism that Jesus was announced to be such before eyewitnesses.

3) Also it is untrue that Paul never mention the birth of Christ, although he doesn't explicitly spell out the story of Mary it is still there. Also this proves that Paul did not think that Jesus became the Son of God at his resurrection as Spong continues to repeat as if it is just matter of fact, that is simply a grossly twisting Romans 1:4 (the text Spong refers to which he chose not to cite). We see Paul refer to Jesus as God's Son in reference to His birth as he writes:

"But when the fullness of time had come, God sent forth his Son, born of woman, born under the law, to redeem those who were under the law, so that we might receive adoption as sons." (Gal 4:4-5)

So what I think we mainly see here is that Paul held that Christ was the Son of God (pre-existent) who was then sent forth and born of a woman and has done a work of redemption to secure adoption for others. Spong of course denies all of this but he does so against the rather obvious teaching of Paul on Christ.

Moving on, so now that Spong has explained Matthew's imposing of his subjective ideas of what Jesus should be like into his Gospel. He really just explains all the accounts of the Gospels in this sort of fashion, these men just made up tales about Jesus to give their "experience" (a word Spong is quite fond of) some meaning. So the writers really knew that the things they wrote weren't real history they were just trying to make sense of their experience. So says Spong.

Peter says otherwise in one of his epistles:

"For we did not follow cleverly devised myths when we made known to you the power and coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, but we were eyewitnesses of his majesty. For when he received honor and glory from God the Father, and the voice was borne to him by the Majestic Glory, "This is my beloved Son, with whom I am well pleased," we ourselves heard this very voice borne from heaven, for we were with him on the holy mountain." (2 Pet 1:16-18)

Peter emphatically claims that he was there and that he heard and saw these events, they were not made up. They were facts that happened in real time and space.

So we are faced with a dilemma on the one hand we have Spong almost 2000 years after the fact saying that these men very consciously made up stories to make their Jesus "experience" make sense, thus they made up stories declaring Him to be the Son of God. Yet we read Peter who was there with Christ saying these things really happened and he saw them and heard them and he knows that they are not myths.

I don't know about you but I will take the testimony of the men who were there and emphatically say that they saw these things happen over some 2000 years later Johnny come lately who says that they conciously made it all up.